In my opponent's first rebuttal, we see several points of rebuttal coming to the forefront. First and foremost, is the challenge that Sola Scriptura is not Biblical or historical. One of my opponent's clearest charges is found in his concluding comments: "Neither Jesus nor the apostles ever teach sola Scriptura." Also, the assertions are made of the supremacy of the Roman Church and what he perceives her role and authority to be. In this falls several general objections to the practice of Scripture only, ranging from Protestant divisions to the literacy level in the Middle Ages. I will explore these charges presented and show once again how the Roman Catholic objections to our position hold no water.

Neither Biblical, Nor Historical

First, the set of charges are leveled that Sola Scriptura has no footing in Scripture or in the history of the Church. Thus, as would be implied, the doctrine is "man-made" finding its birth in the Reformation. However nothing could be further from the truth. First, I will answer the objections to my Scriptural citations, and then I shall examine what the role of Scripture was in the early church.

My Opponent Says: "Actually, nowhere in Scripture does it have the statement 'the Scriptures are sufficient.'"

As the reader can note, I cited one of the more explicit passages which suggests otherwise in 2 Tim. 3:16-17. However, my opponent gives us two objections: the definition of the Greek word artios and the exegesis of the passage to state that the completeness argued with the word artios is refuted by other passages in Scripture.

Going on to critique the definitions I cited of artios in 2 Tim. 3:17, my opponent states that it does not mean "perfect or complete" in this passage. However, my opponent's assertion is nothing more than that, an assertion. First he fails to tell us what he believes artios to actually mean. The quotation cited attempts to rebuke the definition of artios as "perfect", which I should note is Strong's definition of it. As I am not qualified to make a ruling on what Colin Brown states, so be it, let us assume that Strong's is wrong and that artios should not be translated to mean perfect. This though does not go on to answer what then artios does mean, and neither does it refute the testimony of three other Greek Lexicons: Vine, who says "fitted, complete"; Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, and Danker "complete, capable, proficient", "able to meet all demands"; and Louw and Nida, who says of the phrase 'Fully equipped for every good work' this: "to make someone completely adequate or sufficient for something -- to make adequate, to furnish completely, to cause to be fully qualified, adequacy."

David King writes,

"The root verb artizo (artizo) which means 'to get ready, prepare' is never even used in the New Testament. But its intensified form, exartizo (exartizo), is a much stronger term than artizo and means 'completely or thoroughly equipped.' It appears once in the New Testament, here in 2 Timothy 3:17, in connections with the purpose for which Scripture is profitable, namely, that the man of God may not just be complete (artios), but 'fully equipped' (exhrtismenos) for every good work.'" [i]

Secondly, my opponent contradicts himself. First he states "However, when seen in context, artios does not mean perfect or complete in 2 Timothy 3:16-17" but then later tells us he can "misinterpret passages that have the words perfect and complete." I would have to ask which is it? Does he believe artios to mean complete or doesn't he? And if not, then where is the refutation of the work of such men as Bauer, Gingrich, and Danker, etc.?

Now this leads us then to the usage of artios as "complete" in 2 Tim. 3:16-17 which is indeed the heart of the argument. My opponent cites Col.4:12 in an effort to cast doubt on the assertion that, because the man of God is complete and fully equipped for every good work through the God-breathed Scriptures, this implies Scripture is sufficient alone. His attempt fails, however, as the context of Col. 4:12 is far different. Where 2 Tim. 3:16-17 was teaching Timothy how he could discern doctrine and stand against heresy, Col. 4 12 says,

"Epaphras, who is one of your number, a bondslave of Jesus Christ, sends you his greetings, always laboring earnestly for you in his prayers, that you may stand perfect and fully assured in all the will of God." [ii]

The word for "perfect" here is not artios, but rather teleioi, first of all. But furthermore, the context of the passage is not in establishing a rule of faith, but rather in passing along the word that a brother in the faith was praying greatly for them that they would mature in the faith. The usage of the word "perfect" here is a part of Epaphras's prayer and only deliberate misconstruing of this verse, with biased intentions, states otherwise.

My opponent can make all of the hypothetical misrepresentations he wishes. However, his attempt at debunking the argument of artios in 2 Tim. 3:17 fails.

The last charge leveled against the exegesis of 2 Tim. 3:16-17 is Paul's failure to cite autarkeia if his intention was to set up Scriptural sufficiency. However, one has to wonder to themselves what it matters that he did or did not use this word. Paul makes his point crystal clear in this passage. While exhorting Timothy as to what he can rely on to make him "complete, fully equipped for every good work" and while telling Timothy what he can rely upon for "teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness," Paul only cites God-breathed Scripture as the rule of faith by which Timothy can rely. The exclusion of any other rule of faith here, and the lack of Biblical evidence to suggest that "Tradition" is another rule of faith able to make the man of God fully equipped and complete, or perform the duties Scripture can, leave us with Scriptural sufficiency.

The next assertion by my opponent, in attempting to refute the Biblical evidence cited to him, comes in the assertion that Jesus is not teaching Sola Scriptura in Matthew 22:31-32.

My Opponent Says: "Where in the Bible does Jesus command the Apostles or anyone to follow Sola Scriptura? Sure He tells us that Scripture is sufficient. But that doesn't mean Sola Scriptura."

It should first be noted that in no way was I demonstrating that Matthew 22 said, "Scripture alone" explicitly. Rather, the intention of the argument was this: the example of Christ in this passage calls us back to the fact that we are held equally responsible for the way by which we handle Scripture as were the Sadducees. The argumentation of Christ to them and the Pharisees, throughout Scripture, never consisted of "tradition tells us" or "you nullify tradition" but rather is exemplified in this passage whereby He shows us what He held men accountable to: Scripture.

My Opponent Says: "Also, in the next chapter, Jesus told the people, 'Therefore, do and observe ALL THINGS whatsoever THEY tell you, but do not follow their example' (Matthew 23:3). This shows that Jesus told them to recognize people with authority."

The fallacy committed by my opponent here is the assumption that we who recognize Sola Scriptura do not recognize any other authority but Scripture. Nothing could be further from the truth. Rather, we recognize Scripture as the church's sole infallible rule of faith, and hold all authorities under submission to it. As I discussed in my opening statement, Sola Scriptura does not deny the need for teachers or usurp every human authority.

However, neither does Jesus' recognition of an ecclesiastical authority mean that He was approving of all that authority espoused and taught. As Robert Gundry states,

"So long as sitting in Moses' seat qualifies the speaking of the scribes and Pharisees, 'all things whatever' does not include their interpretative traditions, but emphasizes the totality of the law. 'Therefore' establishes the qualification. They do not practice what they speak while sitting on Moses' seat. Hence their traditions are not in view. Though elsewhere Matthew in concerned with criticizing the scribes' and Pharisees' interpretations of the law, here he is concerned with stressing the necessity of keeping the law itself. As usual, his eye is on antinomians in the church." [iii]

Dr. James White observes the exegetical error of Roman Catholic apologists using this passage: To move from Jesus' refusal to overthrow the form of synagogue worship that was present in His day to a total endorsement of extrascriptural, oral traditions is to make a leap of monumental proportions. [iv]

Now, I will examine the historical evidence which my opponent claims disproves the notion of Scripture alone. Quoting Athanasius, he attempts to show us that the early Church exalted the Church to being the "final authority." A says: "This quote again shows that Athanasius did not believe in Sola Scriptura. It shows that the creed of Nicaea DEFINED what the orthodox teaching is." Here is the Athanasius quote given to us by my opponent:

"Hold fast, every one, the faith we have received from the Fathers, which they assembled at Nicaea...And however they (the Arians) may write phrases out of Scripture, endure not their writings; however they may speak the language of orthodox, yet attend not to what they say; for they speak not with an upright mind, but putting on such language like sheep's clothing, in their hearts they think with Arius, after the manner of the devil, who is the author of all heresies. For he too made use of the words of Scripture, but was put silence by our Savior..."

I find it fascinating that my opponent cites this as evidence of his position, because Athanasius in no way debunks Sola Scriptura through his words, but nevertheless we shall explore what he says Athanasius is stating. He claims that this is evidence that at least one of the early Church Fathers upheld the church as being the final authority, in the case of this quote, to answer a dispute from heretics. But Athanasius does not give laud and honor to Nicea merely because "the Church was speaking" but because their testimony was that of Scripture. Another quote from Athanasius's letter demonstrates this:

"Such was the corrupt mind of the Arians. But here too the Bishops, beholding their craftiness, collected from the Scriptures the figures of brightness, of the river and the well, and of the relation of the express Image to the Subsistence, and the texts, 'in thy light shall we see light,' and 'I and the Father are one.' And lastly they wrote more plainly, and concisely, that the Son was coessential with the Father; for all the above passages signify this." [v]

Indeed, the thrust of Athanasius's argument in the quote cited by my opponent is that the testimony of Nicea was trustworthy, that one should "hold fast" to it, and that although the Arian opponents cited Scriptural support for their heresy, they commit the same error as Satan did when he cited Scripture to the Lord Jesus. There is nothing here which establishes the supremacy of the testimony of the Church over Scripture. Thus demonstrates, once again, the error that most Roman Catholics commit when it comes to analysis of Church History and Scripture. Rather than allowing the Scriptures or the writings of the early Church Fathers to speak for themselves, they go back into history and Scripture and interpret it in a biased manner, so that in the end "Rome" is given supremacy.

The Canon

Moving onto a historically-related issue, my opponent now tries to show the problems with Sola Scriptura in relation to the establishment of the canon.

My opponent says: "We also have to know that the early Church did not have the correct canon until the 4th century AD. That means that she did not have the full Gospel in written form, meaning that they HAD to rely on tradition."

First of all, the assertion that the early Church did not have the Gospel in written form is ludicrous and a false misconception altogether. I say this because the Gospel has been in written form ever since the Scriptures were transcribed by the apostles. Secondly, one has to wonder just what it is that they "...HAD to rely on tradition" for, the canon or the Gospel. Lastly, the fact that the early Church looked partially upon the council of those Fathers who had gone before does not mean that the next logical step is, "Therefore they recognized Traditon as we define it and you should too." As Dr. Eric Svendsen has stated, "We can acknowledge the general reliability of the early Church in determining what was accepted and what was not, without ascribing infallibility to it." [vi]

The other statements by my opponent, such as the lists of logic he provides, in support for his viewpoint on the canon are nothing more than broad and unsupported assertions.

The Role of the Church: Final Authority?

My opponent states: "But we should know that most of the theological arguments (even from heretics) are made from Scripture. Unless God does not want us to know the truth, there has to be a final authority, which is the Church...." The Scriptures state the Church to being the pillar and foundation of truth, but do not give it authority over the Scriptures. Rather the Church is subservient to Scripture for, "teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness." My opponent misrepresents Protestants when he gives the false dilemma "either the Church of Rome and truth, or no truth at all." The infallible authority given to the Church of Jesus Christ is Scripture.

Furthermore, when the apostle Peter warned of "the untaught and unstable" in 2 Peter 3:16 who distort Paul's letters, "as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction, he did not then state, "So be sure you have an infallible Magisterium to be your final authority." Rather, he tells us:

2Pe 3:17 "You therefore, beloved, knowing this beforehand, be on your guard so that you are not carried away by the error of unprincipled men and fall from your own steadfastness."

Nowhere in Scripture is the need for an infallible human interpreter emphasized and nowhere does the concept find precedence in the Bible. The Church is not given to us to be the "final authority," but rather the Church is born and recognized from the very Word which created her. William Whitaker stated:

"There was a time when the word of God was not written, and that the Church existed then: but it does not, therefore, follow that the church was more ancient than all churches. For the doctrine was the same when not written, as it is now when it is written; and that was more ancient than all churches. For the word of God is the seed of the Church. Now the seed is always more ancient than the progeny of which it is the seed." [vii]

My opponent states "What is the final authority between disputes? The early Christians' answer would be the CHURCH. It was the creeds of the Church that told the people what the orthodox teachings were." And from where did those creeds originate? Athanasius, in the quote I cited above, gives accolade to Nicea not for any "claim to infallibility" but for their adherence to the Scriptures. This is yet another assertion made by my opponent which comes without logical premise or compelling evidence. Furthermore, he ignores the writings of Irenaeus, who stated:

"We have learned from none others the plan of our salvation, than from those through whom the Gospel has come down to us, which they did at one time proclaim in public, and, at a later period, by the will of God, handed down to us in the Scriptures, to be the ground and pillar of our faith." [viii]

And also said:

"Suppose there arise a dispute relative to some important question among us, should we not have recourse to the most ancient Churches with which the apostles held constant intercourse, and learn from them what is certain and clear in regard to the present question? For how should it be if the apostles themselves had not left us writings?" [ix]

My opponent states: "When the Church teaches Scripture, she must interpret them. We know that the Church teaches with Jesus' authority (cf. Matt 28:18-20; 18:17f; Luke 10:16). And Jesus authority is infallible. Therefore the Church is infallible."

Once again, Scripture offers no assertion that an infallible human interpreter with the teaching authority of Christ would be instituted. If Scripture is so hard to understand, then why did John say, "but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name." (John 20:31)

"Also, how can people throughout the history of Christianity even practice Sola Scriptura when most of them were illiterate?"

For this reason is why God is faithful to give teachers and evangelists by which to proclaim the word of Truth. This does not usurp Sola Scriptura. But those teachers are held responsible for what they teach by Scripture.

Gal 1:8 "But even if we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a gospel contrary to what we have preached to you, he is to be accursed!" Gal 1:9 "As we have said before, so I say again now, if any man is preaching to you a gospel contrary to what you received, he is to be accursed!"

The Case for Sola Scriptura -- No Other Infallible Standard

My opponent correctly notes that, "Julie also says that the phrase 'tradition tells us' is nowhere written in the Bible. Well, the phrase 'Scripture is sufficient' isn't in the Bible either." And yes, this exact phrase isn't located in Scripture, but it has been clearly demonstrated the concept existed. No other standard, no other infallible rule of faith is given to the Church for them to adhere to, according to Scripture.

Finally, we approach the argument which my opponent asks me several times within his statement: Is the doctrine of Sola Scriptura scriptural? As David King writes:

"According to the testimony of Scripture, the maxim of 2 Timothy 3:16 that 'all Scripture is God-breathed' places the content of holy Scripture in a unique category. The Bible sanctions no rival to 'it is written,' and actually condemns all adulterated additions to the gospel revealed therein (Gal 1:8-9), placing a curse on anyone who 'preaches any other gospel.' The gospel is fully revealed in holy Scripture and it testifies that its contents are sufficient to make the man of God 'complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.' If the preaching of the gospel is central to the work of the man of God, then according to the testimony of this same apostle it follows that the gospel is fully disclosed in Scripture." [x]

Throughout this statement, and the statements I have made prior to this, the arguments of Rome to their defense, as has been cited by my opponent, have been displayed to having no merit. The doctrine of Sola Scriptura is more than firmly rooted in Scripture, it is the testimony to the power of God, that He breathed into the words of human authors, protected it from destruction, kept it safe from vandalism, used human instruments to recognize and deliver it, and keeps it intact to this day. Where Rome's doctrines have gone this way and that, and while their tradition has been nothing but a morphing ideal with no real foundation, definition, or solidity; Scripture has remained a solid rock.

In Conclusion

My opponent's statement fails to demonstrate how Scripture is insufficient, or to establish another rule of faith of equality to Scripture. His words fall like the idle assertions that they are, sadly, and make the case for Sola Scriptura that much more prominent. God has given His Church His voice in Scripture. The authority given to the apostles has been transcribed into the written word. And it truly is "inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work."

If the case against Sola Scriptura is going to be shown to have any merit whatsoever, then its equal must be brought forth.

[i] King, David T. "Holy Scripture: The Ground and Pillar of Our Faith, Vol.1" (Battle Ground, WA: Christian Resources Inc. 2001) p. 84

[ii] All Scripture comes from the New American Standard translation of the Bible.

[iii] Gundry, Robert, " Matthew: A Commentary on His Literacy and Theological Art" (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1982), pp. 454-455. Cited in "The Roman Catholic Controversy" p.84-85

[iv] White, James R. "The Roman Catholic Controversy" (Minneapolis,MN. Bethany House Publishers) p. 85

[v] NICENE AND POST-NICENE FATHERS, SERIES II VOLUME IV (ECF - Volume XXVII): Athanasius: Select Works and Letters, "AD AFROS EPISTOLA SYNODICA (WRITTEN ABOUT 369 -- TO THE BISHOPS OF AFRICA, LETTER OF NINETY BISHOPS OF EGYPT AND LIBYA INCLUDING ATHANASIUS)"

[vi] Svendsen, Eric "Evangelical Answers" (Lindenhurst, NY. Reformation Press 1999) p.65

[vii] Whitaker, William. "A Disputation on Holy Scripture Against the Papists, Especially Bellarmine and Stapleton." (Camridge: The University Press, reprinted 1849) pp.331-332 . Cited in "Holy Scripture, the Ground and Pillar of Our Faith, Vol.1" p.131

[viii] Cited in: "Holy Scripture, Ground and Pillar of Our Faith, Vol. 2" by William Webster, p.24

[ix] Ibid, p.25

[x] King, David T. "Holy Scripture, Ground and Pillar of Our Faith, Vol.1" (Battle Ground, WA. Christian Resources Inc. 2001) p. 257

Julie Staples